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Originally Posted by arthra
I'm not a professional scholar by any means but i've read some on the subject lately.. and dating a Gospel like Luke is always a variable.. from say 80 to 120 years CE ...so in other words from the late to the early second century.
- Art  |
But, we have to always ask, why? Its not referenced directly until the last half of the second century. So is the need to find such an early date really based on "evidence" or is it based on the need to get the Gospel as close to the alleged events it is supposed to describe, and possibly more importantly, to maintain the appearance it comes before the "Gnostic Gospels" so they can claim those are a corruption of the canonical other than something done concurrently or after the Gnostics?
-TC