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The debate begins...
Both Harvey1 and Travis ClementSmith are now ready to begin this debate. Harvey1 won the coin toss, and opted for Travis ClementSmith to have the first turn, to which he will respond.
The debate will occur over 5 rounds (5 posts each by Travis ClementSmith and Harvey1), alternately, with a maximum delay of 5 days between each post. Thus, TC posts, and within 5 days, Harvey1 must post, and within 5 days after that TC again, and so on. (If required, one "hardship" delay will be granted to each debater). Comments by anyone other than the debaters should be kept to the Bleachers thread for this debate. The Bleachers thread may also be used by the debaters to post references, sources and citations, where posting them internally would take up valuable debating space. Gentlemen, best of luck to both of you, and the members of Interfaith Forums look forward to your efforts. Travis ClementSmith, please start anytime within 5 days of this post.
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evangelicalhumanist: Greek "eu"=good and "angelos"=messenger. Spreading the good news of Humanism. |
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I’d like to thank EH for moderating this debate, my worthy opponent Harvey1 for participating, and LK for this fine site she has hosted.
Few methods are as objective as the scientific method, and for the field of history, that is the historical method. Few subjects are as subjective as religious belief, so when we bring an objective study to a subjective field, it is not surprising when the result is very contentious. The field of science has exhibited this over and over through many debates in the fields of cosmology and biology. It is no surprise such surfaces again when we try and apply the objective methodology of historical analysis to the field of religion. Determining historical evidence of Jesus of Nazareth exemplifies this conflict. One of the texts held up as such evidence are certain passages from Josephus’ work, Antiquities of the Jews. Let’s put this claim to the test. As difficult as it may be for some to fathom, we have to resist the urge to assume the premise to which this debate is but a part, that the Jesus of the Gospels is an actual historical person rather than a literary invention formed from common mythological motifs and mystical archetypes. If this is true, then the letters and narrations that make up the “New Testament” cannot be considered impartial sources. So we look towards other sources that might be considered neutral or even hostile to said accounts. Even negative accounts can be considered corroborative. Unfortunately, we find precious little to do so. Despite the presence of Jewish historians of the era and region in which these marvelous things were said to have taken place (Justus, whose works are now lost and Philo, who’s partial works we have), they make no mention of Jesus of Nazareth. This brings us to Joesphus’ work, Antiquities of the Jews, published almost six decades after the alleged events. It is important to keep in mind that the writings and people we would expect to be contemporary of Josephus (namely Paul and his letters) are not mentioned or referred to as sources or source material. The one possible exception being James, but even in that, Josephus does not quote his letter, nor does the letter itself provide us any historical corroboration. The Gospels, as far as we know, are not even written yet since no one names them or even really alludes to them until much later. This means we have nothing that is really impartial until we come to Josephus. Does Josephus give us this probable impartial evidence? Let’s examine the passages in question. Garraghan divides criticism into six inquiries (A Guide to Historical Method, 168): Quote:
(a) William Whiston, a 1737 translator, dates the work at 93 CE. [1] Most sources I have seen also place the time period in the early 90’s CE. (b) Antiquities of the Jews, is produced in Rome. (c) By Josephus (d) Josephus uses various sources in his full accounting, but such sources for the disputed passages are not evident. (e) Assumed to have been originally penned in Aramaic and then assisted into Greek translation. For a long period, the original Greek was lost with only a Latin translation available, until Whiston translates back to the Greek. Unfortunately, we do not have any extant copies dating past the 10th century, and all of those are from Christian sources. (f) If we accept the disputed passages as authentic, this still does not give us any eyewitness testimony regarding Jesus. Josephus is born after the time of Jesus and John the Baptist. At best, he is only relating stories, without citation, that he has heard. It is possible he was an eyewitness to James, though this is not clear from the text. If we are attempting to use Josephus to establish the Biblical/Christian account of these people, we must keep the Biblical/Christian chronology in mind: death of John the Baptist, death of Jesus, death of James. Josephus, however, has a different chronology: death of Jesus, death of John the Baptist, death of James. I will examine them in the order of pertinence towards establishing possible history for Jesus (directly, indirectly, textual cross-reference). Directly The reference to Jesus is known as the Testimonium Flavianum, or TF, for short. Arguments against its authenticity are, taken from Dr. Lardner (1684-1768) [2]: Quote:
For approximately 200 years after publication, the TF is not referenced by anyone. This includes Origen (more later), who while searching through the works of Josephus in defending the Christian religion against the attacks of Celsus does not cite the TF. Moreover, he states that Josephus did not believe Jesus to be the Christ. This is the strongest evidence against the TF being original to Josephus. In fact, several authorities, many Christian, also admit this to one degree or another. The Catholic Encyclopedia[3], hedging its bets, admits: Quote:
Bishop Warburton [4], in the mid 1700’s called it: Quote:
Even Christian apologist, Maurice Goguel [5], a professor of the New Testament in Paris, was skeptical of the TF, declaring in 1926: Quote:
The author of, Christian Mythology Unveiled, quotes English theologian Dr. Nathaniel Lardner[6] thus: Quote:
The list of Christian authorities that also considered it to be a forgery, in total, includes Theodore Keim, Rev. Dr. Hooykaas, and Dr. Alexander Campbell. It is not until the mid 20th century that the argument for authenticity comes in vogue again. Despite some very fancy excuses, nothing contradicts the fact nobody references this passage until Eusebius, who is suspected of being the author of the forgery. Quote:
We’ll discuss this passage later. Quote:
Not only this, but Origen proclaims Josephus did not believe Jesus to be the Christ, prior to Eusebius. Quote:
Unless, Josephus is simply relating common mythological motifs, this goes without saying. And if he is simply relating such motifs, it cannot be considered a biography of an historical person. Quote:
The passage falls in a place discussing Pilate and the calamities that have befallen the Jews. Would Jews consider the death of Jesus a calamity for themselves? Certainly Christians might have that viewpoint, but it would take some severe stretches to argue the Jews considered it as such. In any event, if the passage is removed, the narrative flows more naturally. Quote:
We know no one quotes the passage prior to Eusebius, but what about afterwards? Very few, if any, Church authorities quote the TF, although they do refer to Josephus. One notable exception is St. Jerome[7]: Quote:
It seems Jerome has a very unique copy of the TF himself! Quote:
Further, in the 10th or 11th century, a version of the TF was found in an Old Russian copy of Josephus, although it differed quite a bit in places from the standard version. What’s more, it was found in Josephus’ other great work, History of the Jewish War. [8] Apparently, this passage has the ability to migrate from one work to another! Quote:
Quote:
As we alluded to earlier, Origen states Josephus did not believe Jesus to be the Christ. This information is important as we head into the passage concerning James. In his essay on The Christ [9], Remsburg notes the following: Quote:
As my opponent is fond of stating, history is about probability. So I ask the reader, “Is it more probable that this passage is authentic, but continually missed throughout history, save some very special individuals; that the passage has the ability to mutate into different forms and different texts. Or, is it more probable that this passage is a fake, an insertion. That it is only an attempt to sneak a few lines into the limited space of the margins to authenticate a common belief? That, once the Church had censorship authority, it attempted to “rewrite” history to make up for its otherwise complete lack of notice in history? That, in its attempts to rework all known copies of Josephus, it gave poor instruction to their Slavonic counterparts to place in their copy of Josephus?” This passage is a fake, through and through; it is not historical verification of anything other than early attempts to make up history. Indirectly With the TF dismissed we turn our attention to the next two passages. First up is the passage concerning James. Here we are concerned with one phrase: Quote:
What does this sentence look like without the phrase? If we assume Josephus did not know anything special about this James, Doherty notes [10]: Quote:
This would make much more sense since James is not expounded upon anywhere else. But, Doherty goes on to note some critics have allowed the phrase “brother of Jesus” to stand, omitting “the one called Christ”. This could also work in the framework of the text, because the text does not indicate “Jesus” is dead. Another “Jesus” is part of the story, which would still allow the passage to stand as now written. If we read chapter 9 of Antiquities, we find the following summarization of events unfolding. Ananus takes away the priesthood from Josephus by order of Agrippa, who, in an attempt to show his power has James and some of his associates arrested on trumped up charges. Ananus is taking advantage of time before the new procurator, Albinus is on his way to Judea. James and his friends are stoned, prompting concerned citizens to seek both Agrippa and Albinus who is enroute. The citizens feel James was just and did not deserve to be condemned. Agrippa removed Ananus from the High Priesthood and replaced him with Jesus, son of Dam-neus. [11] If we allow the whole phrase to be original to Josephus, it can still work within the context of the story. The phrase does not indicate Jesus is dead, so “brother of Jesus” may refer to the son of Dam-neus, in a high stakes political game. Since Jesus is to become the High Priest, he could have acquired the moniker of “Christos” since he has to be anointed to the position. Still, I favor this being an interpolation. The insertion still seems clumsy. If we consider the above scenario, it actually favors Jesus, son of Dam-neus as the referent. This is because if Josephus had written the now discredited TF, it would have been much easier for him to identify Jesus a “the one crucified by Pilate”. But, just to make sure we got all the bases covered, can we really equate this James in Josephus with the James the Just of Church tradition? According to Josephus, James dies in 62 CE. John Remsburg, in his essay on, The Christ [12], notes: Quote:
It cannot be said with certainty that Origen is quoting Josephus word for word when he discusses the James passage. He has already stated that Josephus did not believe Jesus to be the Christ, so it is possible Origen is reading more into Josephus about James than is there. In any case, this appears to be an early Christian interpolation. If Josephus is writing for a Roman audience, the phrase could be translated as, “James, brother of Jesus, called the wetted"! This, because, it cannot be said with any certainty the audience is familiar with the Jewish practice of anointing kings and priests with oil. Since there is nearly a century between Josephus and Origen, there is ample opportunity for Christians familiar with the title to insert it, an opportunity apparently seized. Textual cross-reference This leaves us with the reference to John the Baptist. There is nothing about the passage itself that testifies to Jesus Christ. It is simply brought up in an attempt to cross-reference the Bible story. Josephus precedes any known account of the canonical Gospels, which are not alluded to until Justin Martyr (who claims he quotes from the Memoirs of the Apostles, now lost). Not until late in the second century do we see the Gospels referred to by their current names. Josephus’ account of John the Baptist is, therefore, first, if it is original. This means the story of Jesus’ encounter with John the Baptist could simply be an adaptation from the tale in Josephus, and not a very careful adaptation at that. Josephus reports that John the Baptist is executed approximately 36 CE, six years after Jesus’ supposed crucifixion. Some apologists attempt to come up with a very convoluted scheme to get the date closer to 30 CE by claiming Josephus is confused about and combines two separate trips that historians use to date the event, but even this excuse still suffers from flaws. Despite all this, I theorize that it wasn’t Christians who inserted this passage if it is an interpolation. A group of Gnostic-Jews known as the Mandaeans, or Sabean-baptists, was known to revere John the Baptist, and stringently denied that John and Jesus had met, much less relate that John transfers his status to Jesus. If it is an interpolation, I suspect this group is to blame. Conclusion To recap, Josephus is writing a history of the Jews at the pleasure of the Roman court, who is his intended audience. He has already written an earlier book, which does not mention any of the Gospel characters, though admittedly, they wouldn’t be central to such a work. In his Antiquities, he means to discourage any further insurrections by the Jews against Rome. As such, he would not include allusions that the calamities that befall the Jews are the result of a Jewish God who uses the Romans as unwitting pawns to punish “His people”. Rome did not give credit to foreign gods for the power of their might. That leaves us with the following possible scenario: Sometime after publication, but prior to the time of Justin Martyr, Sabean-baptists insert the passage about John the Baptist, which is followed by insertions from early Christians about James. Not until almost 200 years later, after the Christians have established their story, does the TF passage appear, “discovered” by Eusebius. With the power of Rome behind them, the Church sets out on a mass rewriting of Antiquities so that the only copies that survive the purge of ancient documents are the Christian copies. Even if one accepts that all these passages are original to Josephus, it still does not constitute evidence of Jesus, only evidence that stories about Jesus existed. Josephus never lets us know who to ascribe this to, simply noting generic “scribes and priests”. Stories are not history and these stories are no different. Sources: [1] The Works of Flavius Josephus [2] Christian Mythology Unveiled (c. 1842), Anonymous [3] CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Flavius Josephus [4] Wheless, op cit. Mangasarian (M.M. Mangasarian, 1909, The Truth About Jesus ? Is He a Myth?) [5] Goguel, 26 [6] Ibid. [7] Acharya S, Suns of God, 384 [8] Zeitlin, S., "The Hoax of the 'Slavonic Josephus'" JQR 39 (1948) [9] The Christ by John E. Remsberg (Front Matter) [10] Josephus Unbound [11] Josephus on the Death of James brother of Jesus, in 62 C.E. [12] Ibid. Last edited by Travis Clementsmith : 11th February 2008 at 08:33 PM. |
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I reviewed Travis Clementsmith's proposal (I'll use Travis to identify him here instead of TC to avoid the constant risk of confusing TC with Josephus's TF clause), and to start off I'd like to begin with two areas of agreement (without mentioning the appreciation that we both share to the webmaster and super moderators).
Quote:
This agreement we share should be a key feature as to what should guide our understanding of history as well as what is the best account of history as it pertains to "Josephus on Jesus" research. Prior to getting into Travis's hypothesis of Josephus on Jesus, I think it is important to set up the theme that I'd like to come back to repeatedly. That theme is that Travis has succumbed to conspiracism, i.e., the thought pattern that convinces conspiracy theorists that there is a conspiracy despite the evidence to the contrary. Patrick Leman, a researcher into conspiracy theories, wrote an article in the New Scientist in July 2007: Quote:
Leman in the same article provides a template for conspiracy models. One point is especially worth quoting: Quote:
It is my contention throughout my "informal" debates with Travis that the whole "Jesus did not exist" is, at the end of the day, just another drab conspiracy theory that we hear over and over in so many forms (e.g., 9-11 terrorists did not cause the Twin Towers to collapse--this was caused by the government planting explosions in the buildings; Princess Di was murdered; JFK wasn't killed by a Lee Harvey Oswald's "magic bullet"; evolution didn't happen--all the evidence for creation has been carefully kept away from the public's attention, etc., etc.). I believe using these examples in comparison to Travis's arguments will help to show the fallacy in his thought processes, and for that reason my theme will return to many of the pitfalls we see in other conspiracy thought processes. Without further ado, let's look at Travis's hypothesis on "Josephus on Jesus." To summarize Travis's hypothesis, let me just state the core of his argument on how Josephus's Antiquities of the Jews happens to have possible references to Jesus, James the Just, and John the Baptist: Quote:
[a] is based on a probable occurrence where Travis says:"I theorize that it wasn’t Christians who inserted this passage if it is an interpolation. A group of Gnostic-Jews known as the Mandaeans. . . I suspect this group is to blame." [b] is based on a probable occurrence where Travis says: "it is possible Origen is reading more into Josephus about James than is there. In any case, this appears to be an early Christian interpolation." [c] is based on "the TF is not referenced by anyone. This includes Origen. . ." and "[w]e know no one quotes the passage prior to Eusebius. . ." In addition, with Travis's permission I'd like to add a [d] assuming I understand his position correctly: Quote:
[d] is based on "[i]t is not quoted by Photius, Patriarch of Constantinople (c. 858-886 ad) even though he wrote three articles concerning Josephus, which strongly implies that his copy of Josephus' Antiquities did not contain the passage." The obvious problem with [d] is that Christians, according to Travis, had already conspired to insert the TF prior to/or concurrent with Eusebius in c. 316 CE. Therefore, there's an apparent discrepancy in that the TF text is inserted prior to c. 316 CE and then for some reason Christians were required to re-insert the TF clause after c. 886 CE. I'd like to hear from Travis why he hypothesizes that this was necessary since the TF clause had already been inserted prior to/or concurrent with Eusebius. I want to insert my theme again by re-quoting comments from Levan's article quoted above: Quote:
What I'd like to point out in Travis's [a]-[c] is the tendency to find a major cause for the major event of Josephus identifying Jesus, James the Just, and John the Baptist in a section of the Antiquities. The major cause mentioned by him absolutely must be in his repertoire of arguments otherwise his entire conspiracy theory of "Jesus as myth" falls apart. What I hope to show is how fast in his counter arguments Travis quickly succumb's to the point made by Levan: Quote:
Let me start by poking holes in [b] since scholars are universally united on this "James the Just" section as being wholly authenic. I realize that Travis is not denying authenticity of the majority of this text, but it is helpful to know the reasons for authenticity. John P. Meier, a historical Jesus scholar has given 5 major reasons why scholars are united on this section of Antiquities 20.9.1 being authentic (cf. John P. Meier, "Jesus in Josephus: A Modest Proposal", Catholic Biblical Quarterly, Jan. 1990, Vol. 52, Iss. 1): A1) There are no notable variations in the extant texts. A2) This passage is "only a passing, almost blase reference to someone called James, whom Josephus obviously considers a minor character." [In other words, a Christian interpolator is not likely to have accepted for James to receive such a minor role if they were modifying the text for their conspiratory reasons.] A3) A Christian source is not likely to have identified James as the "brother of Jesus" because that does not show the reverence as we read of other references to James as being "brother of the Lord" (e.g., Paul, Hegesippus, and even Eusebius who all refer to him as the "Lord's brother"), and to quote Meier, "so does not likely come from the hand of a Christian interpolator." A4) As Travis pointed out, Josephus has it that James died earlier in the 60's CE, and differently than as recorded by Hegesippus and Clement of Alexandria. It would be unlikely that a Christian would insert dates and events that contradicted the tradition of James's death. A5) James is not given any recognition that recognizes his martyrdom as of any significance. His only reason for mention by Josephus is due to Ananus acting unlawfully. There's little praise for James, and as Meier states, "Praise of James is notably lacking; he is one victim among several, not a glorious martyr dying alone in the spotlight. Also telling is the swipe at the 'heartless' or 'ruthless' Sadducees by the pro-Pharisaic Josephus; indeed, Josephus' more negative view of the Sadducees is one of the notable shifts from The Jewish War that characterize The Antiquities. In short, it is not surprising that the great Josephus scholar Louis L. Feldman notes: '...few have doubted the genuineness of this passage on James'" However, for Travis, he has three arguments against Jesus of Nazareth being referred to in this text: B1) "'[Quoting Doherty]The actual words referring directly to James are: Iakobos onoma autoi. Translations render this 'James by name' or 'whose name was James' or 'a man named James' (the last by Crossan). But such a phrase, or something close to it, could have stood perfectly well on its own (with a slight change in form), and had the reference to a brother Jesus added to it by a Christian interpolator'. . . Still, I favor this being an interpolation. The insertion still seems clumsy." B2) "But, Doherty goes on to note some critics have allowed the phrase “brother of Jesus” to stand, omitting 'the one called Christ.'" B3) "If we allow the whole phrase to be original to Josephus, it can still work within the context of the story. The phrase does not indicate Jesus is dead, so 'brother of Jesus' may refer to the son of D(a)mneus, in a high stakes political game. Since Jesus is to become the High Priest, he could have acquired the moniker of 'Christos' since he has to be anointed to the position." [B1] is ruled out by the fact that James (i.e., Jacob) is a very common name in Palestine. Josephus mentions five different people having this name in his various works (according to Abraham Schalit whom Meier refers to in his footnotes). The custom was to provide an identifying attribute (e.g., a location where they are from, or who is their father, etc.), especially for people with common names. In response to [B2], I think Meier's argument in [A1] thru [A5] is sufficient to argue against this point. There are no other extant versions that show this clause missing, and, most importantly, any Christian interpolator who felt it necessary to modify the text would not refer to Jesus without so much a mention of who he is. This last point is very important because according to Travis's account, there was no TF when this "James the Just" text was probably interpolated. Hence, the argument by Travis for interpolation holds no water. That is, unless you have a very strong desire to maintain belief in conspiracy theories. [B3] is without basis since "Christos" meant Messiah or Christ. Besides, it is used as a means to identify who James is, any other interpretation wouldn't make sense in this context. If someone was "anointed," then that would not identify who this Jesus in Ant. 20.9.1 was. The reader is not introduced to Jesus of D(a)mneus until the next paragraph, and the fact that he is introduced with a different designator (i.e., "Jesus of D(a)mneus" versus "Jesus the so-called Christ") makes this argument, I think, very unlikely. So, we see a critical blow to Travis's argument without ever having to consider other Josephus passages in chapter 18. However, let's give Travis the benefit of the doubt for argument's sake, and say that it is very likely that B1-B3 fully account for "Jesus the so-called Messiah" reference, is Travis willing to make the same concession on the other side? That is, is Travis willing to concede that it is very likely, for argument's sake, that Josephus was referring to Jesus the Christ as a historical person? I would be very surprised if he were willing to make that concession because we aren't dealing with a scholarly issue of contention here. We are dealing with a conspiracy theory that would be near unattainable if Travis alloted such an important concession, since out the window goes this particular conspiracy theory! This reminds me of those creationist conspiracists who attack the dating of a fossil and look for any dating discrepancy they can find. If a paleontologist were willing to concede for argument's sake that there is evidence that humans and dinosaurs at one point in history walked side by side (as foolhardy as that sounds), the conspiracy theorists of the creationist movement could hardly concede for argument's sake that dinosaurs existed over 65 million years ago! The reason, as we know, is that such a concession blows out the conspiracy theory. For their own personal reasons people hold very dear to these conspiracy theories and will not let them go. An accummulation of the evidence does not mean much to the conspiracy theorist since, as Levan suggested, the conspiracy theorist uses the notion of a conspiracy as the major cause for the major event. When in trouble they revert back to the conspiracy (i.e., interpolations, interpretations of every bizarre flavor, etc.) to reinforce their conspiracy theory as a major cause. In this post I opted not to get into the TF yet. The reason is that I think there are bigger fish to fry in the context of this discussion. A fish that I do intend to fry. However, since the TF is part of this debate, I intend to go into it in my next post. |
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Moderator Warning
A considerable portion of Harvey1's opening remarks have the potential to lead to a form of "Argumentum Ad Hominem. I am certain that this was not the intent, and just wanted to raise the flag about the use of "loaded" words like "succumbed" and "conspiracism."
It is the Moderator's view that Travis ClementSmith has provided evidence for his thesis. It may or may not be the case that the evidence is biased. It may or may not be the case that there is contradictory evidence that he has omitted, either deliberately or through ignorance of its existence. However, in the interests of keeping the debate respectful of both participants, it is hoped that for the remainder of the debate, the following simple rules will be adhered to:
I have decided not to interfere with the first two posts, as written, except to issue this warning. Your opponent's arguments are perfectly fair game. Your opponent, and your opponent's motives, are not. Therefore, I repeat -- if the evidence does not support the conclusion, please demonstrate how this is so. If there is additional evidence which refutes the conclusion, please introduce it. But do not impugn the motives of your opponent with emotionally loaded phrases such as "conspiracy theory." IFF debaters are not conspirators.
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evangelicalhumanist: Greek "eu"=good and "angelos"=messenger. Spreading the good news of Humanism. Last edited by evangelicalhumanist : 13th February 2008 at 05:35 PM. |
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Harvey1 wishes to build an argument I did not make, [d], that he can then take apart, but at least he asked for my permission to do so: Quote:
My opponent most certainly does not have my permission. If he wishes to build a strawman, I’m afraid he’ll have to retain ownership of it. If, however, there is simply an erroneous assumption from my presentation, I will expound upon that. The printing press does not make its appearance until 1440 CE. Further, we do not have things such as manufacturer recalls. So, when rewrites, or interpolations, are deemed necessary, old copies simply die out (become lost or destroyed). When new copies arrive, they arrive as the new official Church interpretation. Thus, there will be a period following an interpolation where some copies of the original and some copies of the revised are both in use. Further, there is no “mass communication” in this time period, so instantaneous revision of all Josephus manuscripts is not possible. All this demonstrates is that both versions were in existence as late as the 7th century, or, that certain figures considered the interpolation to be a forgery and therefore did not mention it. It is interesting to note there is an ancient table of contents dated to the 5th century for Antiquities that does not include the TF. Quote:
I think it would be pertinent for Harvey1, to relate exactly what version of the TF he considers authentic, or at least, most authentic. Is his position that the TF is original as the one Eusebius cites, or, does he favor the late 20th century “partial interpolation” theory. This is important, for I do not wish to waste time arguing passages we both consider likely interpolations. Since I consider the whole thing a forgery, all Harvey1 needs to do is note the passages he also believes falls into said category. Until we have clarification in this matter, I will assume he is arguing for the entire passage as authentic. Since he chooses to proceed to the James passage, I will follow his inquiries there. Quote:
Yes, but as we have noted, we have nothing earlier than 10th century, all Christian sources. Quote:
My theory proposes the James interpolation as fairly early, possibly prior to Origen, and as such, may have been nothing more than a note in the margin, which the scribe simply copies into the new version, which would play into the next objections. Quote:
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